I think The Cap'n intentionally "set a hare running" with this one!
The price quoted in GBP to someone, as I understand it, living in Germany in
1963 could not simply be converted in dollars anyway, even at the exchange
rates pertaining at the time.
The marketing strategy at the time was to boost UK exports in order to
increase currency income to the UK.. Even in 1963 the UK was still
recovering economically from WW2 with rationing having continued on some
commodities well into the late '50s. UK car manufacturers during the '50s
had a limit on steel supply that was boosted only by export (and not by home
market) sales. That is why 80% of British sports car production ended up in
the States.
The price that cars were sold in the USA was not just a matter of converting
the UK (or European) price at the exchange rate. There was, I believe, a
different USA price list for many of these models, depending on what the
marketing men believed that the USA market would stand.
Guy
----- Original Message -----
From "Jay Fishbein" <type79 at ix.netcom.com>
Cc: <spridgets@autox.team.net>
Sent: Monday, January 12, 2004 3:16 PM
Subject: Re: LBC Gen'l Interest
> I haven't exactly been following this thread, but if you are trying to
> calculate the cost new factoring-in inflation, wouldn't the accurate
> comparison be to start with the cost new of the vehicle in the US? The
> cost in the UK doesn't take into consideration cost of shipping and
> duties, does it?
>
> jay fishbein
> wallingford, ct
> Home of "The Innocenti Project"
> 61 Innocenti 950 Spyder
> 63 Pink Sprite MkII
> 74 RWA Midget 38,000 miles
> http://home.ix.netcom.com/~type79/ <http://home.ix.netcom.com/%7Etype79/>
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