I have sway bars on the S2000 that are infinatly adjustable. In other words they
slide as opposed to using a hole for location. If you lossen only one side, you
can't slide it very far without it binding. The theory may be correct. I just
don't think its
gonna work very well.
But what do I know?
Mike B. TLS#1
"Meyer, Brian J" wrote:
> He's right. Adjustment only needs to be made on one end. However, adjusting
> only one side is only half as effective as doing both. For example, lets say
> a swaybar has adjustment range so that the effective length of the arm
> ranges from 4 inches to 6 inches. If the bar is set on full soft on both
> sides, both arms will be 6" long. Adjusting one side to 4" will only take it
> to "medium", and adjusting both sides to 4" will be full stiff. This is
> assuming the theoretical ideal bar, with frictionless bearings for mounts,
> and so on.
>
> Something else I must comment on... a sway bar does not transfer load from
> one side to the other. It only resists helps the body resist roll by adding
> roll stiffness. Weight transfer is only affected by the height of the CG and
> the width of the track.
>
> The difference in the total roll stiffness from the front suspension to the
> rear suspension WILL affect weight transfer from the front to rear during
> steady state cornering, which is why changing the roll stiffness (by
> adjusting the bar) will affect the balance of the car.
>
> -Brian Meyer
> Wichita Region SCCA
>
> > ----------
> > From: John Coffey[SMTP:johncof@ibm.net]
> > Sent: Tuesday, August 03, 1999 2:43 PM
> > To: Team. Net (E-mail)
> > Subject: Adjustable Swaybars - One or Both Ends?
> >
> > In a discussion with a local suspension guru the point was made that
> > adjustable swaybars really only need to be adjusted on one end, thus the
> > adjustable bars that have adjusting holes on both ends really only need
> > the holes on one end. The basis for this argument is that a sway bar is
> > just a spring with a constant rate so a 100 lbs pushing up on one end will
> > push down with 100 lbs on the other (assuming no preload on the bar).
> >
> > Thinking about this in the context of vehicle roll (which the sway bar
> > exists to control) it appears true. A sway bar transfers load from one
> > side of the vehicle to the other at a constant spring rate and the lever
> > length of the sway bar ends would not affect the amount of load
> > transferred (again, we're talking about vehicle roll). I don't think its
> > true in single wheel bump but that's another issue.
> >
> > This was a new idea to me but it makes sense (after thinking about it and
> > drawing a lot of pictures). What do you folks think?
> >
> > ----------
> > John Coffey
> > johncof@ibm.net
> >
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